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Binomial coefficients

Now let us modify Benjawan's example a bit. She wants to buy four distinct chocolates for the best performing student in class.1 How many possibilities are there? Notice that now the answer would be different from giving four chocolates to four students: What only matters now is the combination but not the order, so the answer should be much less than 1098710\cdot 9 \cdot 8 \cdot 7. Here the answer is exactly the same as the number of four-element subsets of {c1,,c10}\{c_1,\ldots, c_{10}\}.

For any finite set XX, denote by (Xk){X \choose k} the set of all kk-element subsets of XX, e.g., ({1,2,3,4}2)={{1,2},{1,3},{1,4},{2,3},{2,4},{3,4}}{\{1,2,3,4\} \choose 2} = \{\{1,2\}, \{1,3\}, \{1,4\}, \{2,3\}, \{2,4\}, \{3,4\}\}. Define the binomial coefficient (nk){n \choose k} as

(nk)=n!(nk)!k!=i=0k1(ni)k!{n \choose k} = \frac{n!}{(n-k)! k!} = \frac{\prod_{i=0}^{k-1} (n-i)}{k!}

The following theorem formally proves a basic fact in counting that everyone has used.

Theorem 26

For any finite set XX, the number of kk-element subset of XX equals to (Xk){|X| \choose k}.

Proof:

Denote n=Xn = |X|. We use the accounting method. For each YX:Y=kY \subseteq X: |Y| = k, we create a ``bin'' bYb_Y. Let MM be the total number of bins. We will show that M=(Xk)M = {|X| \choose k}. Each one-to-one mapping f:[k]Xf: [k] \rightarrow X can be viewed as an ordered kk-tuple (f(1),f(2),,f(k))(f(1),f(2),\ldots, f(k)) where all elements f(i)f(i) are distinct. For each such ff, we pay a coin into the bin {f(1),,f(k)}\{f(1),\ldots, f(k)\}. The total number of coins in the system is n(n1)(nk+1)=n!/(nk)!n(n-1)\cdots (n-k+1) = n!/(n-k)!. Notice that the number of coins a bin receives is exactly the number of permutations of a kk-element set, and thus each bin receives exactly k!k! coins (e.g., when k=2k=2 the bin {1,2}\{1,2\} receives coins from (1,2)(1,2) and (2,1)(2,1)), so in total we have Mk!=n!/(nk)!M\cdot k! = n!/(n-k)! which implies that M=(nk)M = {n \choose k}.

The number (nk){n \choose k} has led to many interesting, surprising, and beautiful results. For instance, an immediate corollary is the following:

Example 24

For all non-negative integer kk, we have that k!k! divides the product of kk consecutive integers.

Proof:

If the kk consecutive integers involve zero, the product is always zero, so the claim is trivial. So let us represent the product of kk consecutive integers as n(n1)(nk+1)n (n-1) \cdots (n-k+1) and (without loss of generality) all these numbers are positive. Do you notice something? We need to argue that the ratio n(n1)(nk+1)k!\frac{n (n-1) \cdots (n-k+1)}{k!} is an integer. But this is exactly (nk){n \choose k}, which is always an integer 😊

Without using the binomial coefficient, proving the above fact is much more complicated.

Exercise 67

Let pp be a prime and k<pk<p be a natural number. Prove: p(pk)p \mid {p \choose k}.

Footnotes

  1. This does not sound fair, we know, but aren't we all living in a 🐶-eat-🐶 world?