Countability and Computability
We have been counting finite objects and now we will move on to infinite objects. Notice that we rely a lot on the notion of bijections as a way to show that two sets have the same cardinality, i.e., if we can show a bijection , then as a result. This concept in fact extends to infinite sets naturally.
The set and have the same cardinality.
Define the function . Notice that this mapping is a bijection .
Notice that it might be tempting to say that is clearly bigger than (since in particular is a superset!), but the behavior of infinite is not as obvious as the finite one. A bijection is a definite and undeniable proof that they have the same cardinality. The next example is a bit less obvious.
The set and have the same cardinality.
Define
This is a mapping from to . To prove that it is one-to-one, suppose (we will need to argue that this would imply ), there are three cases to analyze:
- If and are even, then we have and therefore .
- If both and are odd, it is similar to the above case.
- Finally, if and have different parities, let us consider the case when is even and is odd (the other case is symmetric). Then we have which implies that . This means that is a negative integer, which is impossible.
To argue that is onto, consider an integer . If is non-negative, then . If is negative, then we have .
📄️ Countable sets
From the two previous examples, we have seen that many sets have the same cardinality as ${\mathbb N}$. We call those sets countable sets (they are infinite, but it's possible to count them ☺️).
📄️ Diagonalization
Now, can we say that every infinite set is countable? This would be nice since we would end up saying that all infinite sets are (roughly) the same. Unfortunately, this is false since the real numbers are not countable.
📄️ Computability
This chapter is getting really long and it is time to end it ☺️